If o: R-S is a ring homomorphism, p (1g)=1s? No Theorem 6.33: Let r be an integral domain, and char(r=p. The function X P: RR is given by ((a)=ap for all aER. Then ( p is a homomorphism from r to R and it is also one-to-oneIf : R→S is a ring homomorphism,  (1R) = 1S? No Theorem 6.33: Let R be an integral domain, and char(R)=p. The function :R→R is given by (a)=ap for all aR. Then  is a homomorphism from R to R, and it is also one-to-one